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Adler set forth how we can get from an is to an ought, how to reason from the coupling of descriptive and prescriptive premises to normative conclusions (without really doing violence to the critiques of Kant and Hume but by transcending them). Maritain set forth a way to enlarge our theological and philosophical visions, in both contemplative spirituality and in moral theology (heck, what's the difference, eh?), by affirming and elucidating the roles of the essentialistic and existential perspectives. JPII, in his Theology of the Body, uses his phenomenological approach to bridge the objective and deductive and principled with the subjective and inductive and experiential. Are all of these metaethical projects related? How are they alike and how do they differ? They certainly all affirm the natural law and a Thomistic take on Aristotle? Why then do Maritain and JPII come out with different views on artificial contraception, for instance? Could being married have anything to do with it? If Catholic married couples en masse followed JPII's phenomenological methods, rigorously, in dialogue with natural law ethics, is it possible that they, too, could articulate an authentic Theology of the Body that even better articulates both the efficacy and symbolism of the spiritually procreative dimension of the conjugal act? | |||
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In John Paul II�s New Vision of Human Sexuality, Marriage and Family Life , Father Richard M. Hogan gives some insight into JPII's thinking: Well, there is a concession re: general intentions. Does this distinction, however, between the specific intentions of ABC and NFP couples wash? | ||||
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Continuing - the distinction between general and specific intent is valid and has been used in both criminal law and in theology. In theology, God's absolute will is equated with general intent and His permissive will with specific intent. IOW, he sometimes allows that which He does not wish. In criminal law, general intent has been taken to mean the basic intention to commit a criminal act in a broad category and, by way of distinction, a specific intent involves a special purpose in addition to the basic intent. For example: So, we are not questioning the validity of the distinction between specific and general intents. Rather, we are trying to discern whether or not ABC and NFP truly differ in specific intent. I am participating on another discussion board and am trying to solicit contributions from a new audience. I would invite you there, w.c., Terri, Phil et al, but it is presently closed down. pax, jb | ||||
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What I don't get is how a 99-100% rate of effectiveness for NFP as a contraceptive method differs in specific intent from ABC? see Method Effectiveness Of Natural Family Planning by John Kippley | ||||
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Maritain writes: Journet wrote to Maritain: Maybe I should content myself knowing that Journet and Maritain were similarly befuddled? See SILENT DISSENTER : Jacques Maritain on contraception , Commonweal, Bernard Doering | ||||
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Hi JB, I haven't read all the links yet, but, I thought I'd throw out a couple of thoughts. Bear in mind, though, that I didn't grow up under the Catholic tutilage about contraception so this is new territory for me (in the last couple of years as I've begun to study some of the Catholic teachings). If I say something that could be offensive or something, just know it's out of my own ignorance...k? Well, there is a concession re: general intentions. Does this distinction, however, between the specific intentions of ABC and NFP couples wash? In watching discussions about this on various boards, it seems to me that the answer is "no". Maybe it's because I don't fully understand the importance of placing procreation as the be all/end all of marital relations. However, I realize not all Catholics view it that way. To the best of my recollection a comment I read once was that marital relations were supposed to be two fold..for the intimacy of man and wife and their souls and for procreation. It seems to me that if we want to use a biblical case for NFP, then we'd have to abide by the Laws of the Torah and the number of days a woman is considered "unclean". It would amount to somewhere around 14 days or more depending on how her body works. Also, we would have to take into account that marital relations in the earliest times wasn't even viewed in the same way. Those early Jews and even early Christians often abstained completely from marital relations in order to dedicate their time to God. Basically, it appears to me that NFP is just the same as ABC only hidden behind a cloud of religious and scriptural terminology. The general intent and specific intent idea seems to muddy up the waters for me. If you're contracepting, isn't the general intent not to have children right then...and the specific intent the same? Thoughts? God bless, Terri | ||||
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What I don't get is how a 99-100% rate of effectiveness for NFP as a contraceptive method differs in specific intent from ABC? Okay, I read that particular one. I just gotta ask...do people seriously think that in biblical times anyone sat around doing these charts and checking mucous!?! I realize we aren't living in biblical times, but still...this kind of calendar juggling just seems to reduce the entire act down to a scheduled appointment. Somehow I don't think that's what God had in mind. (I'll hush now ..lol) And no, I don't see a difference at all. If anything I see a calculated specific intent even more complex and thought out than popping a pill. God bless, Terri | ||||
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JB, as we discussed during my visit in Baton Rouge recently, the Church has emphasized preserving the objective structure of the sex act moreso than the issues of intent and circumstances. If that were not the case, then, yes, the fact that artificial contraception and NFP are motivated by the same circumstances and intent would make them virtually indistinguishable. I think you are quite right in noting this, Terri. Some have argued that even at the "objective" leve, NFP when used during the infertile period is objectively no different from artificial contraception. That may be true, but artificial contraception actively thwarts the fertility of the act per se while NFP does nothing to destroy fertility. Of course, I'm not sure if that in itself is enough to distinguish NFP from contraception in light of the Church's teachings about the morality of sex acts, or if it's simply stating how NFP is different from other contraceptive practices. Phil P.S. When I saw this thread, I initially thought it was about Albert Adler, Maritain, and JPII. I couldn't imagine how these three could be related on a thread. Oh well. . . | ||||
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Thanks Terri and Phil, your answers made perfect sense. I don't think that a further investment of my time, in trying to satisfy my understanding about the distinction between general and specific intents is going to have a payoff where this issue is concerned. I think I just view a moral object, or human act, more integrally, which is to say that a merely physicalistic description leaves me ... what ??? ... feeling rather undignified??? cold ??? whatever! CHANGING the approach. Consider this: This inspires me to do a little more research. What I am wondering is this: When JPII speaks of the inductive, the experiential and the subjective, such as in his phenomenalistic/personalistic approach to the theology of the body where married couples are concerned and when folks like Fr. Hogan speak of the universal experience of the Church in the last twenty years all over the world that couples who ... ... precisely what experience are they talking about? Are they referring to rigorous scientific surveys as derived from suitable sociological and statistical methods that have experimental and control groups and such? Are they in dialogue and gathering this so-called inductive and subjective and experiential information from large demographic cross-sections of the Catholic married population and also from a wide spectrum of clergy and pastoral counsellors and such? I would be interested in reading the supporting documentation for something as important as the universal experience of the Church. Also, where JPII's Theology of the Body is concerned, obviously his attempt to translate the Church's essentialistic perspective, which is to say its objective and deductive and principle-centered approach, into the subjective and inductive and experiential/existential approach is a syntactical exercise, a linguistic work, and is less so a semantical exercise wherein he is drawing on his own personal experience and articulating therefrom. I appreciate the attempt but that might account for the disconnect many of us experience vis a vis his Language of Love. I could write at length about a woman's experience of being pregnant and labor and giving birth but, along the way, much meaning is going to get lost and my lack of having been there will inevitably get found out by my readers. Well, I have strayed ... what I am now interested in is where do I find the supporting studies that set forth the universal experience of the Church re: married life? Thanks. pax, amor et bonum, jb | ||||
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Okay...this is about your straying there..lol. I appreciate the attempt but that might account for the disconnect many of us experience vis a vis his Language of Love. I could write at length about a woman's experience of being pregnant and labor and giving birth but, along the way, much meaning is going to get lost and my lack of having been there will inevitably get found out by my readers. That was a question I wanted to pose earlier but wasn't sure if it would be tacky or not . I guess I don't understand how celibate males (granted I know that some who enter a monastery or the priesthood do it later in life after having been widowed or whatever) have one teensy little idea about marriage, family, marital intimacy. How can they give advice about this? How can nuns for that matter if they've never experienced it (again, I know that some nuns join later after marriage, widowhood, etc). But...it doesn't make sense to me. Just like you said...if you haven't been there, then how in the world can you guide or teach or even understand it?! Another question I have is this...in this terrible economy is it wrong to consider having no children or even limiting it to 1 or 2? Is this a matter of faith that God will provide if it's decided to have 10? That seems irresponsible in some ways...but in other ways I get the drift about faith. God bless, Terri | ||||
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Yes, Terri, I think the question has merit. I do grant that, through extensive pastoral counseling with hundreds of couples over the years, even a single pastor can gather a very informed perspective. Such a perspective can surpass what you and I might know about married life, in general, in many ways and about many things, to be sure. I don't deny this. Still, when it comes to the deeply personal and profoundly intimate nature of the conjugal act and the experience of human sexuality, which far transcends what you have much barnyard knowledge of as a farmgirl, one has to believe that WE have a perspective that cannot be replaced, too. We need the clergy's pastoral perspective and they need our lived experiences. What I find suspicious is this universal experience of the Church re: NFP couples. Those claims may be true indeed and I have no reason to doubt they are. I just really wonder if the Church is also properly drawing on the experience of the other 97% of its married couples who could testify to the enhanced spirtually procreative dimension of their sexual lives and especially those of us whose physically procreative lives are on par, through time, with the NFP cohorts? I think we answer questions of how many children we have as we make any other stewardship decisions: accepting the limited dominion we've been given over our time, talent, treasure, technology and bodies. pax, jb | ||||
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